does host2 happen to be in the same ip range/broadcast domain as the machine you ping from? any wins servers involved? without fqdn, the resolution would be tried with netBIOS, which depending on the broadcast domain might be a hit (http://support.microsoft.com/kb/172218 ).

Hi, i have a question regarding DNS resoltion , so let me explain how dns is configured in my organisation:- There are Multiple dns servers as follows. a) Test.com b) first.test.com c) Second.test.com. My system is member of Second.test.com Now there is a host created in "First.test.com" named "host1". When i am trying to ping host1 from my system .. it is not getting resolved. But if i try to ping "host1.first.test.com" then it is fine. Which is obviouly understood. However there is one more record created under "first.test.com" named "host2" and i am able to ping it without fqdn from my system . Now my question is how come "second.test.com" knows that what is "host2" without complete fqdn because the Authoritative dns for host2 is different. Can anyone please explain ?Amit Rawat | MCITP - Exchange 2007/2010| CCNA |MCSE- 2003| Lync 2010|

does host2 happen to be in the same ip range/broadcast domain as the machine you ping from? any wins servers involved? without fqdn, the resolution would be tried with netBIOS, which depending on the broadcast domain might be a hit (http://support.microsoft.com/kb/172218 ).