Hi,

I am not sure if this possible without an orchestration. I would prefer if i keep it messaging only. 

my problem is as follows:

1- a WCF-SQL receive location fetch a record from a table (primary key for the record is recId)

2- a WCF-Webhttp send port posts the transformed data to a URL , the url responds back with a reference id

how can i update the record in the table with the reference id received by the webhttp send port? (How can i force the webhttp send port to respond back with the recId as well as the reference id receive by the url so that i can correlate back).

P.S : I know how to do this using an orchestration, but is there a way without an orchestration?

thank you

Hi mazin, Are you sending the refid in ur request. I assume you are not. Can you help with request and res

Firstly I hope you're aware that in a messaging-only scenario there can be NO correlation. In a messaging-only scenario you will to rethink your interfaces/integration strategy slight differently that using an orchestration or process oriented approach.

In your case, you need to have a send port that subscribes to the response message from the web-service. Then on this send port you can map from the web-service response to your DB insert.

Regards.

Hi Shanky,

I can make a send port subscribe to the response, but the problem is i will not know what "recId" this response is for.

yes i do send the recId to the s

If I understand you correctly the data has to be sent to the database irrespective of the recId.

Again in the case of an orchestration there was a "dehydrated" process which needed to be cleared and for that the recId correlation was required. A request-response is a two-way auto-correlated call (as opposed to a asynchronous pattern) and should not require a correlation.

Regards.

Shanky,

I will explain a bit more.

let us say i send the following to the web service

<Request>

<RecId>1234</RecId>

<Message>Please approve me</Message>

</Request>

I get the following from the webservice

<Response>Approved</Response>

As you can see, the response that comes back from the webservice does not contain the original RecId. I do not have control of the web service. I know how to fix this using an orchestration, because i can define a Rec Id variable in the orchestration scope and use it to update the database with the webservice call result.

is there a way to achieve this without an orchestration? for example, forcing the response to contain the RecId sent? (in the context maybe?)

Ok. I understood the scenario now.

In this scenario, IMHO, you do not have any option other than what you've done. If you can get the service provider to modify their data contract w.r.t the response then you'd be able to use the recId from the response.

Is there a specific reason you want to move to the messaging only scenario?

Regards.

Yes there is a reason. i do not need to worry about communcation exceptions in a messaging only scenario

Orchestrations can be a pain sometimes ( i know how to handle faults and exceptions in orchestrations, but i just dont like seeing two instances - the orchestration instance and the messaging instance being suspended and the orchestration instance might time out and cannot be re

Hi Mazin,

Is there any problem of using Orchestration ? Your business solution requires a logic to be implemented and Orchestration is best suited for this .

In message only scenario you cannot define a correlation based on the subscription .

Thanks

Abhishek